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Exam Code: SAFe-Agilist
Exam Name: SAFe 6 Agilist - Leading SAFe (SA) (6.0)
Vendor: Scaled Agile

60 Questions & Answers
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NEW QUESTION: 1
In ISO 27002, access control code of practice for Information Security Management serves which of the following
objective?
A. Implement proper control of user, network and application access.
B. Optimize the audit process.
C. Educating employees on security requirements and issues.
D. Prevent the physical damage of the resources.
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 2
Various network outages have occurred recently due to unapproved changes to network and security devices. All changes were made using various system credentials. The security analyst has been tasked to update the security policy. Which of the following risk mitigation strategies would also need to be implemented to reduce the number of network outages due to unauthorized changes?
A. Incident management
B. Implement security controls on Layer 3 devices
C. Configuration management
D. User rights and permissions review
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions. Also reviewing user rights and permissions will afford the security analyst the opportunity to put the principle of least privilege in practice as well as update the security policy
Incorrect Answers:
B. Configuration management is an operational control type that is put into action after a risk assessment has been done.
C. Incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets).
D. IPSec can be implemented on Layer 3 devices, but this will not prevent unauthorized changes to the network. It is a case of the permissions and user rights that has to be addressed.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 10,
17

NEW QUESTION: 3
A security architect is reviewing the options for performing input validation on incoming web form submissions. Which of the following should the architect as the MOST secure and manageable option?
A. Client-side blacklisting
B. Server-side whitelisting
C. Server-side blacklisting
D. Client-side whitelisting
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 4
You have an Azure subscription.
Your on-premises network contains a file server named Server1. Server1 stores 5 TB of company files that are accessed rarely.
You plan to copy the files to Azure Storage.
You need to implement a storage solution for the files that meets the following requirements:
* The files must be available within 24 hours of being requested.
* Storage costs must be minimized.
Which two possible storage solutions achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a general-purpose v1 storage account. Create a file share in the storage account and copy the files to the file share.
B. Create an Azure Blob storage account that is set to the Cool access tier. Create a blob container, copy the files to the blob container, and set each file to the Archive access tier.
C. Create a general-purpose v2 storage account that is set to the Cool access tier. Create a file share in the storage account and copy the files to the file share.
D. Create a general-purpose v2 storage account that is set to the Host access tier. Create a blob container, copy the files to the blob container, and set each file to the access tier.
E. Create a general-purpose v1 storage account. Create a blob container and copy the files to the blob container.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
A: Azure storage offers different access tiers, which allow you to store blob object data in the most cost-effective manner.
The Cool access tier is optimized for storing data that is infrequently accessed and stored for at least 30 days.
E: Using a file share is cheaper than using a blob container.


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