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NEW QUESTION: 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is performing a disaster recovery test and decided to fail over the NetScaler high availability (HA) pair appliances. The administrator noticed that the failover is NOT working as expected in item text, and the Secondary NetScaler is NOT taking over as Primary.
The administrator suspects that networking issues may be causing the failure. What could be the cause of this issue with the NetScalers?
A. Independent network configuration (INC) mode is enabled
B. HA monitoring is enabled on a disabled interface of the Primary Node
C. HA heartbeats are only seen on some enabled interfaces of the Secondary Node
D. HA monitoring is enabled on an interface of the Secondary Node that shows as ENABLED, DOWN
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 2
A locker administrator needs to take a long leave and wants to assign a back-up to perform Locker administrator tasks in their absence. The locker administrator does not want the back-up to add users to the existing lockers, but is comfortable with the back-up adding and editing existing credential variables of the lockers. The back-up can also change access levels of existing users inside the lockers.
How can the locker administrator achieve this?
A. Assign a user as Manager to all the existing lockers
B. Assign a user with "Participant" access to all existing lockers
C. The locker administrator can ask the control room administrator to be the backup as they can perform these tasks by default
D. Change a user's role permission with AAE_Locker Administrator
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 3
A firm's capital structure has a debt-to-equity ratio of 1.2. The pretax cost of debt is 6.8% and the weighted average cost of capital of the firm equals 9.8%. The risk-free rate in the economy is 6.2% the expected rate of return on the market is 14%. The firm must pay 35% of its gross income in taxes. The beta of the stock equals ________.
A. 1.3
B. 1.64
C. 1.02
D. 0.91
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since the debt interest is tax deductible, the after-tax cost of debt equals 6.8%*(1-0.35) = 4.42%. Since the D/E ratio = 1.2, (D+E)/E = 2.2, giving E/(D+E) = 0.455. Thus, equity forms 45.5% of the capital whiledebt forms 54.5%. The WACC is then equal to 0.455*RE + 0.545*4.42% = 9.8% (given). Solving gives RE
16.24%. If B is the beta of the stock, then using CAPM, 16.24% = 6.2% + B*(14% - 6.2%), giving B = 1.29.
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