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NEW QUESTION: 1
A 68-year-old man was recently diagnosed with endstage renal disease. He has not yet begun dialysis but is experiencing severe anemia with associated symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain. Which statement best describes the management of anemia in renal failure?
A. Anemia in renal failure is frequently caused by low serum iron and ferritin and corrected by oral iron and ferritin replacement therapy.
B. The renal secretion of erythropoiesis is decreased. The bone marrow requires erythropoietin to mature red blood cells.
C. Hematocrit levels usually remain slightly below normalin clients with renal failure.
D. Transfusion is often begun as early as possible to prevent complications of anemia such as dyspnea and angina.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Clients in renal failure typically have very low hematocrits, often in the range of 16-22%. (B) Transfusion is avoided unless the client exhibits acute symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and extreme fatigue. When the client is given a transfusion, the bone marrow adjusts by producing less red blood cells. (C) Anemia in renal failure is caused primarily by decreased erythropoietin. Low serum iron and ferritin may aggravate the anemia and require treatment. (D) Decreased secretion of erythropoietin by the kidney is the primary cause of anemia. The bone marrow requires this hormone to mature red blood cells. Treatment is with replacement therapy.
NEW QUESTION: 2
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HINWEIS: Jede richtige Auswahl ist einen Punkt wert.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 3
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A. Current emotional state, personality, and background
B. Background, personality, and communications management plan
C. Personality, background, and escalation process
D. Sponsor relationship, personality, and background
Answer: B
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